Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:11
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Can a Trump supporter explain what was wrong with what Bishop Budde said to Donald Trump?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What should I do if a girl whom I love asks me to be her friend?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.